PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 852

An 18-year-old G1P1 presents to your office with the results of an abnormal pap smear dated 1 month ago. She tells you that she had one pap smear prior to this one and it was normal. She reports having had four sexual partners since beginning sexual activity at age 15. Upon reviewing the pap smear result you find it is reported as low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL). What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient with the abnormal pap smear?
- a. Recommend loop electrosurgical excision.
- b. Repeat pap at 12 months.
- c. Repeat pap smear if and when she changes sexual partners.
- d. Repeat pap smear every 3 years.

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