PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 73 February 6, 2016 By Aamir Khan Leave a Comment Over the past year, a 21-year-old female has developed amenorrhea and has had milky discharge from her left nipple. She is not taking any medications. She is sexually active but does not wish to become pregnant. Serum HCG is negative. Serum prolactin is 300 mg/dL; MRI reveals a 3-mm mass in the pituitary. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy at this time? A. bromocriptine (Parlodel) B. monthly injections of medroxyprogesterone C. sequential birth control pill D. transphenoidal resection of the tumor Δ
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