PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 376

A 71-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her daughter because of sudden onset of right-sided weakness and slurred speech. The patient, a recent immigrant from Southeast Asia, has not seen a doctor in 2 decades. Her symptoms began 75 minutes ago while she was eating breakfast. A stat noncontrast CT scan of the head is normal. Labs are normal. Physical examination reveals an anxious appearing woman with dense hemiplegia of the R upper and lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are not discernible on the R side and 2+ on the left. Aspirin has been given. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
- a. Immediate intravenous unfractionated heparin
- b. Immediate thrombolytic therapy
- c. Immediate administration of interferon-beta
- d. Emergent MRI/MRA of head

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