PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 373

A 72-year-old man presents with progressive abdominal pain over the last 2 days. He has had several loose stools, subjective fever, and decreased appetite. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, diet-controlled diabetes mellitus, and one admission to the hospital for heart failure 2 years ago. He takes a beta-blocker and loop diuretic faithfully as prescribed by his physician. Vital signs include heart rate 92 and blood pressure 126/64. Physical examination reveals mucosal stranding of the oropharynx, no JVD, no lower extremity edema, and tenderness to palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. CT scan with contrast of the abdomen has been ordered. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
- a. Administer low-dose aspirin for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism.
- b. Administer low-dose low-molecular-weight heparin for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism.
- c. Administer treatment dose of low-molecular-weight heparin for presumed ischemic colitis.
- d. Administer 150-mEq sodium bicarbonate in 1-L D5 water for prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy.

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