PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 367 April 1, 2016 By Aamir Khan Leave a Comment An 18-year-old male has been seen in the clinic for urethral discharge. He is treated with ceftriaxone, but the discharge has not resolved and the culture has returned as no growth. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent to cause this infection? a. Ceftriaxone-resistant gonococci b. Chlamydia psittaci c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Herpes simplex Δ
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