PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 209

A 15-year-old boy presents with a 2-month history of bilateral knee pain. He runs track and attends practice daily. He describes the pain as dull and aching over the anterior knee, increasing with activity. He did not have any specific injury or limp but has noticed some swelling under the knees. On exam, he is afebrile. He has slight swelling and tenderness bilaterally just below the knees. There is full range of motion and negative special tests of the knee. Radiographs are normal. What is the best management at this time?
- A. knee immobility for 6 to 8 weeks
- B. referral to physical therapy
- C. routine referral to orthopaedic surgery
- D. self-limited activity, ice, and NSAIDs

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