PANCE Exam Practice Question: Quiz 208 February 26, 2016 By Aamir Khan Leave a Comment A 34-year woman presents to the emergency department complaining of left lower pelvic pain for 2 hours. History reveals intermittent vaginal spotting for 3 days; LMP was 6 weeks ago. Serum -HCG is 2,000 mU/mL; ultrasonography shows an empty uterus and 3-cm adnexal mass. Vital signs are normal and patient is stable. What is the best course of management? A. laparoscopy B. laparotomy C. methotrexate D. watchful waiting Δ
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