PANCE Exam Practice Questions: Quiz 360

A 40-year-old female nurse was admitted to the hospital because of fever to 39.4°C (103°F). Despite a thorough workup in the hospital for over 3 weeks, no etiology has been found, and she continues to have temperature spikes greater than 38.9°C (102°F). Which of the following statements about diagnosis is correct?
- a. Chronic infection, malignancy, and collagen vascular disease are the most common explanations for this presentation.
- b. Influenza may also present in this manner.
- c. Lymphoma can be ruled out in the absence of palpable lymphadenopathy.
- d. SLE is an increasing cause for this syndrome.

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